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  3. But WHY isn't it a flu?

But WHY isn't it a flu?

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  • K kalberts

    Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

    J Offline
    J Offline
    Joe Woodbury
    wrote on last edited by
    #5

    The Biology Of Influenza Viruses[^]

    1 Reply Last reply
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    • K kalberts

      Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

      L Offline
      L Offline
      Lost User
      wrote on last edited by
      #6

      Flu predates modern medicine; so does it's naming.

      History.com[^] wrote:

      The word influenza, however, wasn’t used to describe a disease until many centuries later. In 1357, people called an epidemic in Florence, Italy influenza di freddo, which translates to “cold influence,” referring to the disease’s possible cause. In 1414, French chroniclers used similar terms to describe an epidemic that affected up to 100,000 people in Paris. They said it originated from vent puant et tout plein de froidure, or a “smelly and cold wind.”

      Another fun part on that page;

      History.com wrote:

      Scientists later discovered that H. influenzae causes many types of infections—including pneumonia and meningitis—but not influenza.

      I never learned to distinguish between common cold and the flu. I get flu-shots against the common cold for all I know.

      Bastard Programmer from Hell :suss: If you can't read my code, try converting it here[^] "If you just follow the bacon Eddy, wherever it leads you, then you won't have to think about politics." -- Some Bell.

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      • K Kent Sharkey

        You've basically defined it above - influenza is a disease caused by the influenza virus, just as smallpox is caused by the smallpox virus, etc. While coronaviruses lead to similar symptoms, the coronaviruses aren't related to the influenza virus. Therefore, it's not an influenza. So, basically it's just a definition issue. Disease was defined as being caused by these organisms; this isn't caused by those organisms, therefore, "something else". To muddy the waters further, the "common cold" is caused by a whack of virus types, including coronaviruses.

        TTFN - Kent

        K Offline
        K Offline
        kalberts
        wrote on last edited by
        #7

        Yes, influenza is causes by influenzsa viruses. Wikiepedia told me that. You could say the same about fevers "You silly fool - that's not an xxx fever, it is an yyy fever, don't you know?" Sure you could give every source of fever its name. If the symptoms are the same, and the treatemnent (or lack of treatment) is the same, it is sort of understandable that common man views it as the same, isn't it? If it looks like a duck, walks like a duck and sounds like a duck, then it is a duck. At least in the view of common man. It is a lot more comforting to hear that "Well ... we drew a dividing line between flu and non-flu viruses; it was kind of arbitrary and we could, in principle, have included a larger group", compared to "You silly fool - don't you even know the difference between flu and non-flu viruses??".

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        • K kalberts

          Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

          M Offline
          M Offline
          Mark_Wallace
          wrote on last edited by
          #8

          It's because of the medical definition of what an influenza is. That's because it's a medical definition, so it's stupid, and doesn't meet the stringent developer-level definition of medical things. e.g. "parts of the human body that have a hinge" are, obviously, the same thing, according to developers, but doctors don't see knees, elbows, and jaws as being the same thing. Doctors are idiots, eh?

          I wanna be a eunuchs developer! Pass me a bread knife!

          K 1 Reply Last reply
          0
          • K kalberts

            Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

            M Offline
            M Offline
            Maximilien
            wrote on last edited by
            #9

            Member 7989122 wrote:

            Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory?

            Maybe by asking different bunch of people ? we are not medical "persons" we're computer "persons"

            I'd rather be phishing!

            K 1 Reply Last reply
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            • K kalberts

              Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

              D Offline
              D Offline
              DRHuff
              wrote on last edited by
              #10

              Semantics? But either way I hear that the Corona virus goes well with Lyme disease.

              I, for one, like Roman Numerals.

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              • K kalberts

                Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

                R Offline
                R Offline
                Ron Anders
                wrote on last edited by
                #11

                Because we are like sheep not able or willing to absorb more.

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                • R Ron Anders

                  Because we are like sheep not able or willing to absorb more.

                  L Offline
                  L Offline
                  Lost User
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #12

                  That statement makes no sense at all, even in your language. More than what?

                  Bastard Programmer from Hell :suss: If you can't read my code, try converting it here[^] "If you just follow the bacon Eddy, wherever it leads you, then you won't have to think about politics." -- Some Bell.

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                  • K kalberts

                    Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

                    L Offline
                    L Offline
                    Lost User
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #13

                    same reason lions are called lions, and tigers, well tigers. both will eat you, but you'd hope that the guy trying to get the attacking beast off you isn't the fella from the circus which his whip and chair if it's a tiger. (A picture of Sigfried & Roy would be the better choice.) Flu shots don't fix corona, you'd want the doc to inject the correct magic juice in or not?

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                    • L Lost User

                      Flu predates modern medicine; so does it's naming.

                      History.com[^] wrote:

                      The word influenza, however, wasn’t used to describe a disease until many centuries later. In 1357, people called an epidemic in Florence, Italy influenza di freddo, which translates to “cold influence,” referring to the disease’s possible cause. In 1414, French chroniclers used similar terms to describe an epidemic that affected up to 100,000 people in Paris. They said it originated from vent puant et tout plein de froidure, or a “smelly and cold wind.”

                      Another fun part on that page;

                      History.com wrote:

                      Scientists later discovered that H. influenzae causes many types of infections—including pneumonia and meningitis—but not influenza.

                      I never learned to distinguish between common cold and the flu. I get flu-shots against the common cold for all I know.

                      Bastard Programmer from Hell :suss: If you can't read my code, try converting it here[^] "If you just follow the bacon Eddy, wherever it leads you, then you won't have to think about politics." -- Some Bell.

                      B Offline
                      B Offline
                      Brady Kelly
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #14

                      The common cold is a rhinovirus infection, flu an influenza virus.

                      "'Do what thou wilt...' is to bid Stars to shine, Vines to bear grapes, Water to seek its level; man is the only being in Nature that has striven to set himself at odds with himself." —Aleister Crowley

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                      • L Lost User

                        That statement makes no sense at all, even in your language. More than what?

                        Bastard Programmer from Hell :suss: If you can't read my code, try converting it here[^] "If you just follow the bacon Eddy, wherever it leads you, then you won't have to think about politics." -- Some Bell.

                        R Offline
                        R Offline
                        Ron Anders
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #15

                        More than we're already accustomed to. So the news media "simplifies" it as well as sugar coats it. Just a flu strain.

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                        • C Cp Coder

                          Your virus scanner may be confusing it with a Mexican beer (Corona Light.) It wouldn't ban a beer, now would it?

                          J Offline
                          J Offline
                          Jorgen Andersson
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #16

                          Cp-Coder wrote:

                          It wouldn't ban a beer,

                          In the case of Corona Light it's tempting

                          Wrong is evil and must be defeated. - Jeff Ello

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                          • M Mark_Wallace

                            It's because of the medical definition of what an influenza is. That's because it's a medical definition, so it's stupid, and doesn't meet the stringent developer-level definition of medical things. e.g. "parts of the human body that have a hinge" are, obviously, the same thing, according to developers, but doctors don't see knees, elbows, and jaws as being the same thing. Doctors are idiots, eh?

                            I wanna be a eunuchs developer! Pass me a bread knife!

                            K Offline
                            K Offline
                            kalberts
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #17

                            Seems like you didn't understand the question. Let me make an analogy: Lots of media, both printed and electronic, influences my political opinions. Then the political analysts start talking about the influenzing (with 'z') media. I learn that 'influenzing' media are TV, FB and Flickr. Newspapers, radio and email campains and others, are influencing media. I ask around: What is the real difference between influencing and influenzing my political ideas? The answer I get is essentially: Influencing is what you get from influencing media, influenzing you get from influenzing media. Well, of course, but what set influenzing media apart from influencing media? Influenzing media are those influenzing you, influencing media influences you, you silly fool! Yes. Circle arguments work because circle arguments work. Therefore I am a silly fool to ask. It is a matter of definition. It is defined that way because it is defined that way. Maybe, if you manage to get to the core it, you will learn that there is some academically defined detail setting TV, FB and Flickr apart from the others, such as the image/text ratio combined with the degree of interaction. Or something else. Of course these aspects are related to how the media affect my opinions, but why are those selected as criteria for creating this special group of 'influenzing' media? You could have groped by so many other criteria! Same with the flu. A flu is caused by an influenza virus, and they are defined as influenza viruses because they cause a flu. That is the trivial, circular part. If the corona virus had been covered by the definition of an influenza virus, it would have caused a flu as well. The list of corona symptoms are very similar to the list of flu symptoms, so common man would find it quite natural. Asking why the definition of influenza viruses cover those four (groups of) viruses, but not corona and others, is NOT to suggest that "doctors are idiots"!

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                            • K kalberts

                              Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

                              G Offline
                              G Offline
                              GuyThiebaut
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #18

                              I used to work in a genetic company and some intelligent person asked this very question of one of the doctors working there. The answer was and you may not be satisfied with it - "convention".

                              “That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”

                              ― Christopher Hitchens

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                              0
                              • M Maximilien

                                Member 7989122 wrote:

                                Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory?

                                Maybe by asking different bunch of people ? we are not medical "persons" we're computer "persons"

                                I'd rather be phishing!

                                K Offline
                                K Offline
                                kalberts
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #19

                                Maximilien wrote:

                                Maybe by asking different bunch of people ? we are not medical "persons" we're computer "persons"

                                Yeah, but if some "common housewife" looked up, say, a Linux Core Developers Forum with a question about what this "operating system" thing is, do you think that she would get an answer that makes any sense to her? Of course those Linux core developers would insist that the answer makes perfect sense, but I am not sure that the housewife would agree. Similarly, if I went to some forum of virologists, they would probably give me an answer that would be totally greek (or maybe Latin) to me. Often, if you really are new to a field, you can get more help by first getting hold of some digested, simplified information than by going to the top experts.

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                                • G GuyThiebaut

                                  I used to work in a genetic company and some intelligent person asked this very question of one of the doctors working there. The answer was and you may not be satisfied with it - "convention".

                                  “That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”

                                  ― Christopher Hitchens

                                  K Offline
                                  K Offline
                                  kalberts
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #20

                                  GuyThiebaut wrote:

                                  The answer was and you may not be satisfied with it - "convention".

                                  Once it is declared that it is a mere convention, I am perfectly happy with it. Telling someone that their Eternal Truth is a mere "convention" can be very upsetting to them, even with insignificant details. Like when I (many years ago) helped this lady, who had been using Word Perfect for years, to learn to use MS Word: When I explained the the button with the printer icon, she objected fiercely to that way of working: "You must agree that using the F7 key for printing is much more natural!" Or dress codes: In several countries, you are required by law to expose certain parts of your body when in public, but to cover other parts. Saying "Sheesh, it is just a convention" and throwing away your swimsuit on the beach will be met with far stronger reactions than just "He is not behaving according to established conventions". OK, even the fiercest "correctionists" are not threatening to call the police, even if you wrongfully describe Corona symptoms as a flu. But it goes far beyond "a mere convention" reactions. Such as when I ask what distinguishes flu viruses from non-flu, and one answer concludes "Doctors are idiots, eh?" To me, that is a quite emotional reaction to the questioning of a convention. To me it says, Don't you ever dare to touch that convention!, at the same level as Don't you ever dare to drop your swimsuit at our beach! if I ask for the real justification for the swimsuit requirement.

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                                  • K kalberts

                                    GuyThiebaut wrote:

                                    The answer was and you may not be satisfied with it - "convention".

                                    Once it is declared that it is a mere convention, I am perfectly happy with it. Telling someone that their Eternal Truth is a mere "convention" can be very upsetting to them, even with insignificant details. Like when I (many years ago) helped this lady, who had been using Word Perfect for years, to learn to use MS Word: When I explained the the button with the printer icon, she objected fiercely to that way of working: "You must agree that using the F7 key for printing is much more natural!" Or dress codes: In several countries, you are required by law to expose certain parts of your body when in public, but to cover other parts. Saying "Sheesh, it is just a convention" and throwing away your swimsuit on the beach will be met with far stronger reactions than just "He is not behaving according to established conventions". OK, even the fiercest "correctionists" are not threatening to call the police, even if you wrongfully describe Corona symptoms as a flu. But it goes far beyond "a mere convention" reactions. Such as when I ask what distinguishes flu viruses from non-flu, and one answer concludes "Doctors are idiots, eh?" To me, that is a quite emotional reaction to the questioning of a convention. To me it says, Don't you ever dare to touch that convention!, at the same level as Don't you ever dare to drop your swimsuit at our beach! if I ask for the real justification for the swimsuit requirement.

                                    G Offline
                                    G Offline
                                    GuyThiebaut
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #21

                                    ...it sounds like you were not satisfied with the answer :^)

                                    “That which can be asserted without evidence, can be dismissed without evidence.”

                                    ― Christopher Hitchens

                                    1 Reply Last reply
                                    0
                                    • K kalberts

                                      Seems like you didn't understand the question. Let me make an analogy: Lots of media, both printed and electronic, influences my political opinions. Then the political analysts start talking about the influenzing (with 'z') media. I learn that 'influenzing' media are TV, FB and Flickr. Newspapers, radio and email campains and others, are influencing media. I ask around: What is the real difference between influencing and influenzing my political ideas? The answer I get is essentially: Influencing is what you get from influencing media, influenzing you get from influenzing media. Well, of course, but what set influenzing media apart from influencing media? Influenzing media are those influenzing you, influencing media influences you, you silly fool! Yes. Circle arguments work because circle arguments work. Therefore I am a silly fool to ask. It is a matter of definition. It is defined that way because it is defined that way. Maybe, if you manage to get to the core it, you will learn that there is some academically defined detail setting TV, FB and Flickr apart from the others, such as the image/text ratio combined with the degree of interaction. Or something else. Of course these aspects are related to how the media affect my opinions, but why are those selected as criteria for creating this special group of 'influenzing' media? You could have groped by so many other criteria! Same with the flu. A flu is caused by an influenza virus, and they are defined as influenza viruses because they cause a flu. That is the trivial, circular part. If the corona virus had been covered by the definition of an influenza virus, it would have caused a flu as well. The list of corona symptoms are very similar to the list of flu symptoms, so common man would find it quite natural. Asking why the definition of influenza viruses cover those four (groups of) viruses, but not corona and others, is NOT to suggest that "doctors are idiots"!

                                      D Offline
                                      D Offline
                                      DerekT P
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #22

                                      You've totally lost me. Seems this entire thread is based on a typo; that someone somewhere typed z when they meant c. Influenzing doesn't seem to appear in any dictionary (which is what you'd expect, since it's not a word). Even typing it here, Chrome tells me I'm in error. So this whole post doesn't seem to mean anything... ? Just because things have similar effects doesn't mean they're the same. A wolf will maul you to death as will a lion or a tiger. But a wolf is a canine, both lions and tigers are feline. You don't want to be locked in a room with either of them, but they're not the same. However to a lay person, trying to define the difference between felines and canines is non-trivial.

                                      M K 2 Replies Last reply
                                      0
                                      • K kalberts

                                        Too many people, in my opinion too is eager to screan out "Are you completely clueless? Don't you know that ..." The last week, the victims of such attacks have been those referring to the Corona virus attack as a "flu". "What a fool you are - the Corona thing is NOT a flu!"¨ I didn't know that myself until looked it up in Wikipedia (however reliable that source is ...), learnig of the four classes of "influenza viruses" (or "viri", for those with a classical education). What Wikipedia did NOT explain is why these four classes of viri has been elevated to the sole position of influenzing our health. With a "z". Because the list of symptoms of being influenced (with a "c") by Corona viruses, or a crowd of others, is so similar that even a doctor could not off hand tell that "These are Corona symptom, not influenza symptoms". I fully understand that influenza is caused by a specific group of viri. What I don't understand is why the effect of this virus group on human health is separate out and labeled "influenza", when other virus groups have very much of the same effects, which are not called "influenza". Could anyone explain this to a person with next to nothing background in medical theory? Hopefully with something more informative than "... because they are causes by viri with other signatures"!

                                        S Offline
                                        S Offline
                                        Stefan_Lang
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #23

                                        I am not an expert, but I guess the difference is like getting hit by a tree while passing by, or getting hit by someone with a tree: The first can happen because there's bad wheather, the other can happen, because you asked a silly question. But in both cases, the symptoms are the same ;P

                                        GOTOs are a bit like wire coat hangers: they tend to breed in the darkness, such that where there once were few, eventually there are many, and the program's architecture collapses beneath them. (Fran Poretto)

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                                        • D DerekT P

                                          You've totally lost me. Seems this entire thread is based on a typo; that someone somewhere typed z when they meant c. Influenzing doesn't seem to appear in any dictionary (which is what you'd expect, since it's not a word). Even typing it here, Chrome tells me I'm in error. So this whole post doesn't seem to mean anything... ? Just because things have similar effects doesn't mean they're the same. A wolf will maul you to death as will a lion or a tiger. But a wolf is a canine, both lions and tigers are feline. You don't want to be locked in a room with either of them, but they're not the same. However to a lay person, trying to define the difference between felines and canines is non-trivial.

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                                          Mark_Wallace
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #24

                                          DerekT-P wrote:

                                          Influenzing doesn't seem to appear in any dictionary (which is what you'd expect, since it's not a word)

                                          True, and I've never seen it before, but I just searched on it, and found that it's used in a few medical texts in place of "influencing". Weird.  It must be used by doctors with one-track minds.

                                          I wanna be a eunuchs developer! Pass me a bread knife!

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