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  • M MoustafaS

    This is a pure math question, but its quite good.

    Prove that for all x>=1

    (x-1)/x <= ln x


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    DavidNohejl
    wrote on last edited by
    #2

    x is real, or integer?


    "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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    • D DavidNohejl

      x is real, or integer?


      "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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      MoustafaS
      wrote on last edited by
      #3

      Real


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      • M MoustafaS

        Real


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        DavidNohejl
        wrote on last edited by
        #4

        ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


        "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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        • D DavidNohejl

          ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


          "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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          MoustafaS
          wrote on last edited by
          #5

          dnh wrote:

          1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

          That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


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          • M MoustafaS

            dnh wrote:

            1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

            That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


            About : Islam
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            DavidNohejl
            wrote on last edited by
            #6

            They are equivalent. :confused:


            "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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            • D DavidNohejl

              ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


              "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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              MoustafaS
              wrote on last edited by
              #7

              [Hint] Have you tried the graphical solution ?;)


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              • D DavidNohejl

                They are equivalent. :confused:


                "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                MoustafaS
                wrote on last edited by
                #8

                For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


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                • M MoustafaS

                  For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


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                  DavidNohejl
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #9

                  I see my mistake, ln(1)!=1 :(( No wait I don't...


                  "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                  • D DavidNohejl

                    I see my mistake, ln(1)!=1 :(( No wait I don't...


                    "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                    MoustafaS
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #10

                    ln(1)=0 Also if you've drawn the graph of the two funtions with each other, you will solve it for well.


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                    • M MoustafaS

                      ln(1)=0 Also if you've drawn the graph of the two funtions with each other, you will solve it for well.


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                      DavidNohejl
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #11

                      Picture is not proof.


                      "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                      • M MoustafaS

                        For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


                        About : Islam
                        About : Me

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                        DavidNohejl
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #12

                        hmm, I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x for x in (1,e), function ln(x) + 1/x is raising as well, because it's derivation, (ln(x)+1/x)' = (1/x -1/(x^2)) = (x-1)/(x^2) > 0 for x in (1,e).


                        "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                        • D DavidNohejl

                          hmm, I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x for x in (1,e), function ln(x) + 1/x is raising as well, because it's derivation, (ln(x)+1/x)' = (1/x -1/(x^2)) = (x-1)/(x^2) > 0 for x in (1,e).


                          "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                          MoustafaS
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #13

                          dnh wrote:

                          I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                          You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


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                          • M MoustafaS

                            dnh wrote:

                            I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                            You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


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                            DavidNohejl
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #14

                            No I don't!


                            "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                            • M MoustafaS

                              dnh wrote:

                              I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                              You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


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                              DavidNohejl
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #15

                              1<=ln(x)+1/x is equivalent to (x-1)/x <= ln x. I am proving 1<=ln(x)+1/x... And my proof is that for x = 1, ln(x) + 1/x = 1. for x>1, ln(x) + 1/x > 1 because it's raising function, as I proved by showing it's derivation is > 0 on interval (1,e). for x>e, I proved it before.


                              "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                              • M MoustafaS

                                This is a pure math question, but its quite good.

                                Prove that for all x>=1

                                (x-1)/x <= ln x


                                About : Islam
                                About : Me

                                G Offline
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                                Graham Shanks
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #16

                                Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                • G Graham Shanks

                                  Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                  Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                  MoustafaS
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #17

                                  Very very complete and accurate proof.;)


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                                  • G Graham Shanks

                                    Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                    Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                    Ravi Bhavnani
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #18

                                    You brought back some excruciatingly painful memories. :) /ravi

                                    This is your brain on Celcius Home | Music | Articles | Freeware | Trips ravib(at)ravib(dot)com

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                                    • G Graham Shanks

                                      Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                      Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                      MoustafaS
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #19

                                      Graham Shanks wrote:

                                      when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive.

                                      Right

                                      Graham Shanks wrote:

                                      For x = 0 all terms are zero

                                      For x = 1, not 0, because x cannot be zero.


                                      About : Islam
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                                      • M MoustafaS

                                        dnh wrote:

                                        1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

                                        That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


                                        About : Islam
                                        About : Me

                                        J Offline
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                                        Jorgen Sigvardsson
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #20

                                        Yes it does.

                                        -- Raaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa!

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                                        • D DavidNohejl

                                          1<=ln(x)+1/x is equivalent to (x-1)/x <= ln x. I am proving 1<=ln(x)+1/x... And my proof is that for x = 1, ln(x) + 1/x = 1. for x>1, ln(x) + 1/x > 1 because it's raising function, as I proved by showing it's derivation is > 0 on interval (1,e). for x>e, I proved it before.


                                          "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                                          Jorgen Sigvardsson
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #21

                                          You are correct. I don't know what he's been smoking. :confused:

                                          -- Raaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa!

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