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Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved The Lounge
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  • M MoustafaS

    Real


    About : Islam
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    DavidNohejl
    wrote on last edited by
    #4

    ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


    "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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    • D DavidNohejl

      ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


      "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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      MoustafaS
      wrote on last edited by
      #5

      dnh wrote:

      1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

      That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


      About : Islam
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      • M MoustafaS

        dnh wrote:

        1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

        That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


        About : Islam
        About : Me

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        DavidNohejl
        wrote on last edited by
        #6

        They are equivalent. :confused:


        "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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        • D DavidNohejl

          ok, If I do this (and I can because x>=1): (x-1)/x <= ln(x) 1-(1/x) <= ln(x) 1 <= ln(x) + 1/x for x=1 both sides are equal. Now, since ln(x) is raising function*, and 1/x >0 for all x>1, 1 < ln(x) + 1/x obviously. *in case it's called differently, I mean that ln(x) > ln(y) <=> x > y


          "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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          MoustafaS
          wrote on last edited by
          #7

          [Hint] Have you tried the graphical solution ?;)


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          • D DavidNohejl

            They are equivalent. :confused:


            "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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            MoustafaS
            wrote on last edited by
            #8

            For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


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            • M MoustafaS

              For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


              About : Islam
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              DavidNohejl
              wrote on last edited by
              #9

              I see my mistake, ln(1)!=1 :(( No wait I don't...


              "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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              • D DavidNohejl

                I see my mistake, ln(1)!=1 :(( No wait I don't...


                "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                MoustafaS
                wrote on last edited by
                #10

                ln(1)=0 Also if you've drawn the graph of the two funtions with each other, you will solve it for well.


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                • M MoustafaS

                  ln(1)=0 Also if you've drawn the graph of the two funtions with each other, you will solve it for well.


                  About : Islam
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                  DavidNohejl
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #11

                  Picture is not proof.


                  "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                  • M MoustafaS

                    For 1<= x <= e, exists the problem, you must prove it in this range.


                    About : Islam
                    About : Me

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                    DavidNohejl
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #12

                    hmm, I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x for x in (1,e), function ln(x) + 1/x is raising as well, because it's derivation, (ln(x)+1/x)' = (1/x -1/(x^2)) = (x-1)/(x^2) > 0 for x in (1,e).


                    "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                    • D DavidNohejl

                      hmm, I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x for x in (1,e), function ln(x) + 1/x is raising as well, because it's derivation, (ln(x)+1/x)' = (1/x -1/(x^2)) = (x-1)/(x^2) > 0 for x in (1,e).


                      "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                      MoustafaS
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #13

                      dnh wrote:

                      I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                      You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


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                      • M MoustafaS

                        dnh wrote:

                        I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                        You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


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                        DavidNohejl
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #14

                        No I don't!


                        "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                        • M MoustafaS

                          dnh wrote:

                          I'll still use 1<=ln(x)+1/x

                          You use it as if it's true, I want you to prove it, not use it to prove itself.


                          About : Islam
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                          DavidNohejl
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #15

                          1<=ln(x)+1/x is equivalent to (x-1)/x <= ln x. I am proving 1<=ln(x)+1/x... And my proof is that for x = 1, ln(x) + 1/x = 1. for x>1, ln(x) + 1/x > 1 because it's raising function, as I proved by showing it's derivation is > 0 on interval (1,e). for x>e, I proved it before.


                          "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                          • M MoustafaS

                            This is a pure math question, but its quite good.

                            Prove that for all x>=1

                            (x-1)/x <= ln x


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                            Graham Shanks
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #16

                            Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                            Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                            • G Graham Shanks

                              Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                              Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                              MoustafaS
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #17

                              Very very complete and accurate proof.;)


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                              • G Graham Shanks

                                Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                Ravi Bhavnani
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #18

                                You brought back some excruciatingly painful memories. :) /ravi

                                This is your brain on Celcius Home | Music | Articles | Freeware | Trips ravib(at)ravib(dot)com

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                                • G Graham Shanks

                                  Easy - use the following series expansion[^] ln = (x-1)/x + 1/2 ((x-1)/x)^2 + 1/3 ((x-1)/x)^3 + ... which is valid for x > 1/2 when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive. For x = 0 all terms are zero QED

                                  Graham My signature is not black, just a very, very dark blue

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                                  MoustafaS
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #19

                                  Graham Shanks wrote:

                                  when x > 1 the second and subsequent terms are positive.

                                  Right

                                  Graham Shanks wrote:

                                  For x = 0 all terms are zero

                                  For x = 1, not 0, because x cannot be zero.


                                  About : Islam
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                                  • M MoustafaS

                                    dnh wrote:

                                    1 <= ln(x) + 1/x

                                    That doesn't mean anything, you must prove the whole side : (x-1)/x <= ln x


                                    About : Islam
                                    About : Me

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                                    Jorgen Sigvardsson
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #20

                                    Yes it does.

                                    -- Raaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa!

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                                    • D DavidNohejl

                                      1<=ln(x)+1/x is equivalent to (x-1)/x <= ln x. I am proving 1<=ln(x)+1/x... And my proof is that for x = 1, ln(x) + 1/x = 1. for x>1, ln(x) + 1/x > 1 because it's raising function, as I proved by showing it's derivation is > 0 on interval (1,e). for x>e, I proved it before.


                                      "Throughout human history, we have been dependent on machines to survive. Fate, it seems, is not without a sense of irony. " - Morpheus "Real men use mspaint for writing code and notepad for designing graphics." - Anna-Jayne Metcalfe

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                                      Jorgen Sigvardsson
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #21

                                      You are correct. I don't know what he's been smoking. :confused:

                                      -- Raaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa!

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                                      • M MoustafaS

                                        This is a pure math question, but its quite good.

                                        Prove that for all x>=1

                                        (x-1)/x <= ln x


                                        About : Islam
                                        About : Me

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                                        Chris Maunder
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #22

                                        Expand as a power series and compare terms.

                                        cheers, Chris Maunder

                                        CodeProject.com : C++ MVP

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                                        • C Chris Maunder

                                          Expand as a power series and compare terms.

                                          cheers, Chris Maunder

                                          CodeProject.com : C++ MVP

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                                          MoustafaS
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #23

                                          Perfect, nice.


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